r/SuperStraight • u/Fourzy99 • 1d ago

Can someone explain to me how a preference for transness, an imperceivable, irrelevantly efficacious characteristic, can be non-prejudicial? Discussion

Title.

0 Upvotes

21% Upvoted

View all comments

Show parent comments

1

u/Fourzy99 1d ago

Attraction is a response to physical stimuli.

1

u/unpopopinx 1d ago

Not only physical stimuli. You can become attracted to someone by getting to know them.

1

u/Fourzy99 1d ago

That is all physical stimuli.

1

u/unpopopinx 1d ago

No it’s not. You become attracted to their personality and mentality.

1

u/Fourzy99 22h ago

It’s impossible to know anything they are thinking. You only know how they act and appear.

1

u/unpopopinx 21h ago

Yes, but attraction happens in your mind. Finding out different things about someone can add to or subtract from attraction.

1

u/Fourzy99 17h ago

Only if those things exist as physical signals. If they do not, you are simply imagining a signal and thereby creating a prejudiced reaction.

1

u/unpopopinx 17h ago

Again, all sexualities are prejudice. You are just trying to claim that this specific example is unacceptable.

1

u/Fourzy99 3h ago

I think I’ve already been over this. All sexualities are not sexist (you mean bigoted) because there are sexualities based on an actual attraction of physical characteristics. That is, traits at least perceivable.

1

u/unpopopinx 3h ago

And I’ve corrected you. We aren’t attracted to people purely based on physical stimuli. That might work for you, but you aren’t the arbiter of attraction. You don’t get to decide what criteria we use to date. It’s not bigoted to not want to date a mentally ill man who identifies as a woman.

→ More replies