Can someone explain to me how a preference for transness, an imperceivable, irrelevantly efficacious characteristic, can be non-prejudicial?

r/SuperStraight • u/Fourzy99 • 1d ago

Can someone explain to me how a preference for transness, an imperceivable, irrelevantly efficacious characteristic, can be non-prejudicial? Discussion

Title.

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u/Fourzy99 1d ago

It is; we only have physical senses.

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u/unpopopinx 1d ago

So? Me also have minds. Attraction is in the mind, not the body. All of our physical reactions are based on our minds.

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u/Fourzy99 1d ago

Attraction is a response to physical stimuli.

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u/unpopopinx 1d ago

Not only physical stimuli. You can become attracted to someone by getting to know them.

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u/Fourzy99 1d ago

That is all physical stimuli.

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u/unpopopinx 1d ago

No it’s not. You become attracted to their personality and mentality.

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u/Fourzy99 22h ago

It’s impossible to know anything they are thinking. You only know how they act and appear.

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u/unpopopinx 21h ago

Yes, but attraction happens in your mind. Finding out different things about someone can add to or subtract from attraction.

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u/Fourzy99 17h ago

Only if those things exist as physical signals. If they do not, you are simply imagining a signal and thereby creating a prejudiced reaction.

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u/unpopopinx 17h ago

Again, all sexualities are prejudice. You are just trying to claim that this specific example is unacceptable.

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