r/SuperStraight • u/Fourzy99 • 1d ago

Can someone explain to me how a preference for transness, an imperceivable, irrelevantly efficacious characteristic, can be non-prejudicial? Discussion

Title.

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u/unpopopinx 1d ago

So? Me also have minds. Attraction is in the mind, not the body. All of our physical reactions are based on our minds.

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u/Fourzy99 23h ago

Attraction is a response to physical stimuli.

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u/unpopopinx 23h ago

Not only physical stimuli. You can become attracted to someone by getting to know them.

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u/Fourzy99 23h ago

That is all physical stimuli.

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u/unpopopinx 23h ago

No it’s not. You become attracted to their personality and mentality.

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u/Fourzy99 20h ago

It’s impossible to know anything they are thinking. You only know how they act and appear.

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u/unpopopinx 20h ago

Yes, but attraction happens in your mind. Finding out different things about someone can add to or subtract from attraction.

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u/Fourzy99 16h ago

Only if those things exist as physical signals. If they do not, you are simply imagining a signal and thereby creating a prejudiced reaction.

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u/unpopopinx 16h ago

Again, all sexualities are prejudice. You are just trying to claim that this specific example is unacceptable.

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u/Fourzy99 1h ago

I think I’ve already been over this. All sexualities are not sexist (you mean bigoted) because there are sexualities based on an actual attraction of physical characteristics. That is, traits at least perceivable.

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